HEMENDRA NATH DEKA,GUWAHATI vs. ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER OF INCOME TAX, CPC, BENGALURU

order : June 05, 2023 आदेश / ORDER संजय गग�, �या�यक सद�य �वारा / Per Sanjay Garg, Judicial Member: The captioned appeals have been preferred by the assessee against the separate orders both dated 09.12.2021 of the National Faceless Appeal Centre [hereinafter referred to as ‘CIT(A)’] passed u/s 250 of the Income Tax Act (hereinafter referred to as the ‘Act’).

5. The issue herein is covered by the Coordinate Kolkata Bench of the Tribunal in the case of Siddhi Vinayaka Graphics Pvt. Ltd. vs. ACIT in vide order dated 16.05.2023 (authored by one of us i.e. Judicial Member herein), wherein, the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of ‘Checkmate Services Pvt. Ltd vs. CIT’ (supra) has been duly considered and other contentions relating to the validity of the adjustments made on account of disallowance of delayed deposit of employees’ contribution to PF/ESI while processing the return u/s 143(1) of the Act, have also been duly discussed. The relevant part of the order of the Coordinate Bench is reproduced as under:

Contention -1: “5. The prima facie adjustment u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Income tax Act, 1961 (Act) in respect of an issue is allowable with reference to the interpretation of law which was prevailing as on the date of filing of subject Income tax Return (ITR) and any subsequent pronouncement of law or retrospective amendment on the concerned issue is not to be considered for such purpose. Accordingly, the subsequent pronouncement of law by Hon'ble Supreme Court judgement in Checkmate Services (P) Ltd. Vs. CIT (2022) 448 ITR 518 (SC) is not to be considered for prima facie adjustment u/s. 143(1)(a) for asst. yr. 2020-21 for disallowing payment of employees' contribution to PF/ESI beyond the due date prescribed in respective statute because on the date of filing of ITR by appellant on 30.03.2021, Hon'ble Calcutta High Court (Jurisdictional High Court) judgement in the case of CIT Vs. Vijay Shree Ltd. (2014) 43 taxmann.Com 396 (Calcutta High Court) was holding field which held that such employees’ contribution, if deposited within due date of filing ITR (which in the instant case of appellant was 15.02.2021) is not to be disallowed u/s. 36(1)(va) of the Act.

I.T.A. Nos.5&6/Gau/2022 Assessment Years: 2018-19 & 2019-20 Hemendra Nath Deka a) CIT Vs. Hindustan Electrographite Ltd. (2000) 243 ITR 48 (SC) (2000) 109 Taxman 342 (SC) b) Modern Fibotex India Ltd. Vs. DCIT (1995) 212 ITR 496 (Cal) c) Samtel Color Ltd. Vs. UOI (2002) 258 ITR 1 (Del) (2002) 125 Taxman 1002 (Delhi) d) ITO Vs. Gujarat Power Corpn. Ltd. (2002) 254 ITR 217 (Gujarat) (2002) 122 Taxman 367 (Gujarat) e) CIT Vs. Vijayshree Ltd. (2014) 43 taxmann.com 396 (Calcutta High Court) 6. Admittedly, the issue on merits has been set at rest by the recent decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in bunch of appeals with the lead case in ‘Checkmate Services Pvt. Ltd vs. CIT’ in Civil Appeal No.2833 of 2016 dated 12.10.2022. Earlier, there were divergent opinions of various High Courts. The High Courts of Bombay, Himachal Pradesh, Calcutta, Guwahati and Delhi were of the view that if the employer’s as well as employee’s contribution to PF/ESI is deposited before the due date of filing of Income Tax Return, the same was an allowable expenditure u/s 36(1)(va) of the Act taking the due date as per the provisions of section 43B of the Act, whereas, the High Courts of Kerala and Gujarat ruled in favour of the Revenue holding that the due date of filing of return u/s 43B would be applicable in respect of employer’s contribution only and not in respect of failure of the employer to deposit the funds deducted/collected from the employees, to say it in other words, the benefit of extended date i.e. last date of filing of return, would not be available in respect of employees’ contribution and the same will not be allowed as deduction of expenditure if deposited after due date as prescribed by the relevant statutes irrespective of the fact that the same was deposited by the employer before the due date of filing of return of income u/s 139(1) of the Income Tax Act. The Hon’ble High Courts which ruled in favour of the assessee held that the provisions of section 43B(b) prescribing the due date as the last date for furnishing of return of income will not only apply to employers’ contribution towards ESI/PF of employee but also to the employees’ contribution which have been deducted by the employer and deposited by the employer as prescribed u/s 36(1)(va) of the Act. However, the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of ‘Checkmate Services Pvt. Ltd vs. CIT’ (supra) has held that by virtue of section 2(24)(x) of the Act, the amounts received or deducted by an employer u/s 36(1)(va), it retains its character as an income (albeit deemed) by virtue of section 2(24)(x), unless the condition stipulated by Explanation to section 36(1)(va) are satisfied i.e. depositing such amount received or deducted from the employee on or before the due date. The Hon’ble Supreme Court held that there is a marked distinction between Assessment Years: 2018-19 & 2019-20 Hemendra Nath Deka the nature and character of the two amounts – the employer’s liability is to be paid out of its income, whereas, the second is deemed an income, by definition, since it is the deduction from the employee’s income and held in trust by the employer. The Hon’ble Supreme Court thus held that the conditions of section 43B prescribing the due date as the date of filing of return of income in case the employers’ contribution towards ESI/PF would not be applicable in case the employees’ contribution as provided u/s 36(1)(va) of the Act and that the due date in respect of deposit of employees’ contribution would be such as prescribed u/s 36(1)(va) of the Act.

7. Now the contention raised by the ld. counsel for the assessee is that before the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of ‘Checkmate Services (P) Ltd. vs. CIT’ (supra), the judgement of the jurisdictional Calcutta High Court in CIT vs. Vijayshree Ltd. (supra) was holding field which held that employees’ contribution if deposited within the due date of filing of ITR is not to be disallowed u/s 36(1)(va) of the Act. Therefore, the Assessing Officer was not justified in making adjustment u/s 143(1)(a) of the Act. Before proceeding further, it will be relevant to mention here that under section 43B(b) of the Income Tax Act, the following amount is allowable as deduction if paid by the assessee before due date of furnishing of return u/s 139(1) of the Act. “43B(b) any sum payable by the assessee as an employer by way of contribution to any provident fund or superannuation fund or gratuity fund or any other fund for the welfare of employees” It has to be noted here that under the statutory provisions of section 43B(b) of the Income Tax Act, the due date being the last date of filing of ITR was applicable only in respect of employer’s contribution towards ESI/PF etc. There is no mention in the aforesaid statutory provision of section 43B regarding the due date of deposit of employees’ contribution to ESI/PF, which is prescribed in the provisions of section 36(1)(va) only. It will be also relevant to reproduce here the relevant part of the judgment of the Hon’ble Calcutta High Court in the case of CIT vs. Vijayshree Ltd. (supra): “2. The only issue involved in this appeal is as to whether the deletion of the addition by the Assessing Officer on account of Employees ‘ Contribution to ESI and PF by invoking the provision of Section 36(1)(va) read with Section 2(24)(x) of the Act was correct or not.

I.T.A. Nos.5&6/Gau/2022 Assessment Years: 2018-19 & 2019-20 Hemendra Nath Deka 4. Being dissatisfied, the Revenue has come up with the present appeal.

6. Such being the position, the deletion of the amount paid by the Employees’ Contribution beyond due date was deductible by invoking the aforesaid amended provisions of Section 43(B) of the Act.

9. It has been held time and again that law declared by a court will have retrospective effect, if not otherwise stated to be so specifically. It is also well settled proposition that whenever, a previous decision is overruled by a larger bench of the Supreme Court, the previous decision Assessment Years: 2018-19 & 2019-20 Hemendra Nath Deka is completely wiped out and Article 141 will have no application to the decision which has already been overruled and the court would have to decide the cases according to the law laid down by the latest decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court and not by the decision which has been expressly overruled. The above reasoning stems from the principle that when a court decides a matter, it is not as if it is making any new law but it is as if it is only restating what the law has always been. The reliance in this respect can be placed on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of “Ramdas Bhikaji and Choudhary vs. Sadananda” (1980) 1 SCC 550 and on the recent decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of “Manoj Parihar and Ors. Vs. State of Jammu & Kashmir and Ors” SLP(C) No.11039 of 2022 vide order dated 27.06.2022; “PV Goerge vs. State of Kerala” (2007) 3 SCC 557; Assistant Commissioner vs. Saurashtra Kutch Stock Exchange Ltd. (2008) 14 SCC 171, wherein, the Hon’ble Supreme Court has held that judges do not make law, they only discover and find the correct law. Even, that where an earlier decision of the court operate for quite some time, the decision rendered later on would have retrospective effect clarifying the legal position which were earlier not correctly understood. In view of the above stated legal position, the law declared by the Hon’ble Supreme Court will be retrospectively applicable and it will be treated that earlier decisions of different High Court favouring the assessee would be of no benefit of assessee at this stage as the said decisions of the High Courts are treated to be never existed or to say are wiped out by the aforesaid decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court. Therefore, I do not find any merit in the first contention raised by the assessee. Even otherwise, it was not a case of amendment of provisions, the assessee was banking upon the interpretation given by the hon’ble High Court on the already existing provisions, which were subject to appeal to hon’ble Supreme Court. If the assessee has chosen to reap the fruits of the interpretation given by the hon’ble High Court, the assessee is also liable to face the consequences, if such an interpretation given by the hon’ble High Court is reversed or modified by the Apex Court of the country. So far as the reliance of the ld. counsel on the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of ‘CIT vs. Hindustan Electrographite Ltd.’ (supra) is concerned, I find that the said decision is not applicable to the facts and circumstances of the present case. The said decision deals with the retrospective amendment of the statutory provision, and not relating to the interpretation of the provisions already existing in the Statute. The facts of the said case were that the assessee had received during the prevision year relevant to assessment year 1988-89 certain amount by way of cash compensatory support. It did not include this income in its &6/Gau/2022 Assessment Years: 2018-19 & 2019-20 Hemendra Nath Deka return which was filed on 29.12.1989. the Assessing Officer treated cash compensatory support receipt as additional income u/s 143(1A) in view of insertion of clause (iiib) to section 28 by the Finance Act, 1990 with retrospective effect from 1.4.1967 and levied tax at higher rate and also charged interest u/s 234. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in the aforesaid facts and circumstances held that in view of the law on the date of filing of the return, there was neither a bona fide mistake on the part of the assessee nor there was any mistaken belief. That, though, the amendment to section 28 was made with retrospective effect but the said amendment could not have been known to the assessee before the Finance Act came into force. The Hon’ble Supreme Court further observed that levy of additional tax bears all the characteristic of penalty and when the additional tax was imprint of penalty and that it would be punishing the assessee for no fault of it. However, the facts and circumstances of the present case as observed are quite distinguishable. In the present case as observed there is no change of law. the statutory provisions have not been amended retrospectively, rather, it was a question only of interpretation of statutory provisions. Moreover, as noted above, provision in the decision of the Hon’ble Calcutta High Court in the case of ‘CIT vs. Vijayshree Ltd.’ (supra), the sole issue raised before the Hon’ble Calcutta High Court was as to whether the provisions of section 43B will have to be applied retrospectively or prospectively without any discussion on the issue whether the employer’s contribution mentioned in section 43 would also include employees’ contribution. It was not the case that the assessee was not aware that the decision of the hon’ble High Court was subject to appeal before the hon’ble Supreme Court and that the decision of the Hon’ble High Court could be reversed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court. Similarly, the case law cited by the ld. counsel in the case of Modern Fibotex India Ltd. vs. DCIT (supra), the other case laws of different High Courts relied by the ld. counsel, are not applicable in view of the settled proposition of law by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the various case laws as discussed above.

10. Contention -2 – Upto asst. yr. 2020-21, despite Hon'ble Supreme Court judgement in Checkmate Services (P) Ltd. Vs. CIT (2022) 448 ITR 518 (SC), prima facie adjustment u/s. 143(1)(a) of the Act cannot be made to disallow u/s. 36(1)(va) the employees' contribution to PF/ESI deposited belatedly after due date prescribed under relevant statute if deposited within due date of filing ITR which in the instant case of appellant was 15.02.2021. a) M/S P.R. Packaging Service Vs. ACIT (2022) 66 CCH 0378 Mum. Trib b) A Infrastructure Ltd. Vs. DCIT (2023) 37 NYPTTJ 165 (Jd) &6/Gau/2022 Assessment Years: 2018-19 & 2019-20 Hemendra Nath Deka c) Paris Elysees India Private Limited Vs. DCIT Order dated 20.02.2023 in ITA No. 357/JPR/2022

11. The contention as canvassed by the ld. counsel is that the Assessing Officer could have disallowed the aforesaid employees’ contribution to ESI/PF being deposited after the due date under the relevant statute, only in an assessment carried out u/s 143(3) of the Act. That the Assessing Officer did not have any power or jurisdiction to disallow the aforesaid amount while processing the return u/s 143(1)(a) of the Act. The ld. Counsel for the assessee, in this respect, has relied upon the recent decision of the Coordinate Mumbai Bench of the Tribunal in the case of ‘M/s P R Packaging Service vs. ACIT’ in order dated 07.12.2022, wherein, the Coordinate Bench of the Tribunal has held that as per the provisions of section 143(1)(a)(iv) of the Act, the Assessing Officer while processing the return u/s 143(1) of the Act could have made the disallowance of expenditure if, the same was indicated in the audit report but not taken into account in computing the total income in the return. The Coordinate Bench of the Tribunal has been of the view that the tax auditor in the audit report had merely mentioned the due date for remittance of provident fund as per the Provident Fund Act and the actual date of payment made by the assessee. That the tax audit had not contemplated to disallow the employees’ contribution to PF, wherever, it is remitted beyond the due date prescribed in the Provident Fund Act. That it was merely recording of facts and a mere statement made by the tax auditor in his tax audit. That the provisions of section 143(1)(a)(iv) of the Act would come into operation when the tax auditor had suggested for a disallowance of expenses or increase in income, but the same has not been carried out by the assessee while filing the return of income. The Coordinate Bench thus observed that the tax auditor in the said case had not said to disallow the employees’ contribution to PF, wherever, it is remitted beyond the due date under the respective Act. The Coordinate Mumbai Bench of the Tribunal in the case of M/s P R Packaging Service (supra), therefore, held that the said action of the ld. CPC, Bangalore/Assessing Officer in disallowing the employees’ contribution to PF while processing the return u/s 143(1) of the Act was against the provisions of the Act as it did not fall within the ambit of prima facie adjustment. The Coordinate Bench of the Tribunal to fortify its view has further relied upon the another decision of the Coordinate Mumbai Bench of the Tribunal in the case of ‘Kalpesh Synthetics Pvt. Ltd. vs. DCIT’ reported in 195 ITD 142(Mum). The relevant part of the order of the Coordinate Mumbai Bench in the case of M/s P R Packaging Service (supra), for the sake of ready reference, is reproduced as under: &6/Gau/2022 Assessment Years: 2018-19 & 2019-20 Hemendra Nath Deka “3. We have heard the rival submissions and perused the materials available on record. It is not in dispute that assessee had remitted the employees contribution to Provident Fund beyond the due date prescribed under the Provident Fund Act, but had duly remitted the same before the due date of filing the return of income under section 139(1) of the Act. This fact of remittance made by the assessee with delay had been reported by the Tax Auditor in the Tax Audit Report. The copy of the Tax Audit Report is placed on record by the Ld.AR before us together with its annexures. On perusal of the same, we find that the Tax Auditor had merely mentioned the due date for remittance of Provident Fund as per the Provident Fund Act and the actual date of payment made by the assessee. The Tax Auditor had not even contemplated to disallow the employees’ contribution to Provident Fund wherever it is remitted beyond the due date prescribed under the Provident Fund Act. Hence, it is merely recording of facts and a mere statement made by the Tax Auditor in his audit report. The Ld.CPC Bangalore had taken up this data from tax audit report and sought to disallow the same while processing the return under section 143(1) of the Act, apparently by applying the provisions of section 143(1)(a)(iv) of the Act. For the sake of convenience, the relevant provisions is reproduced hereunder:- “143(1) Where a return has been made under section 139, or in response to a notice under sub section (1) of section 142, such return shall be processed in the following manner, namely:- (a) The total income or loss shall be computed after making the following adjustments, namely:- (iv) disallowance of expenditure (or increase in income) indicated in the audit report but not taken into account in computing the total income in the return.” 4. From the aforesaid provisions, it is very clear that the said clause (iv) would come into operation when the Tax Auditor had suggested for a disallowance of expense or increase in income, but the same had not been carried out by the assessee while filing the return of income. As stated supra, the tax auditor had not stated in the instant case to disallow Employees Contribution to Provident Fund wherever it is remitted beyond the due date under the respective Act. Hence, in our considered opinion, the said action of the Ld.CPC Bangalore in disallowing the employees’ contribution to Provident Fund while processing the return under section 143(1) of the Act is against the provisions of the Act as it would not fall within the ambit of prima facie adjustments. Our view is further fortified by the co-ordinate bench decision of this Tribunal in the case of Kalpesh Synthetics Pvt. Ltd vs. DCIT reported in 195 ITD 142 (Mum).”

12. At this stage, it will be relevant to reproduce the relevant provisions of section 143(1) of the Act which is as under: &6/Gau/2022 Assessment Years: 2018-19 & 2019-20 Hemendra Nath Deka “143. (1) Where a return has been made under section 139, or in response to a notice under sub-section (1) of section 142, such return shall be processed in the following manner, namely:— (a) the total income or loss shall be computed after making the following adjustments, namely:— (i) any arithmetical error in the return; [***] (ii) an incorrect claim, if such incorrect claim is apparent from any information in the return; [(iii) disallowance of loss claimed, if return of the previous year for which set off of loss is claimed was furnished beyond the due date specified under sub-section (1) of section 139; (iv) disallowance of expenditure indicated in the audit report but not taken into account in computing the total income in the return; (v) disallowance of deduction claimed under sections 10AA, 80-IA, 80- IAB, 80-IB, 80-IC, 80-ID or section 80-IE, if the return is furnished beyond the due date specified under sub-section (1) of section 139; or (vi) addition of income appearing in Form 26AS or Form 16A or Form 16 which has not been included in computing the total income in the return: Provided that no such adjustments shall be made unless an intimation is given to the assessee of such adjustments either in writing or in electronic mode: Provided further that the response received from the assessee, if any, shall be considered before making any adjustment, and in a case where no response is received within thirty days of the issue of such intimation, such adjustments shall be made:] ... Explanation.—For the purposes of this sub-section,— (a) "an incorrect claim apparent from any information in the return" shall mean a claim, on the basis of an entry, in the return,— (i) of an item, which is inconsistent with another entry of the same or some other item in such return; (ii) in respect of which the information required to be furnished under this Act to substantiate such entry has not been so furnished; or (iii) in respect of a deduction, where such deduction exceeds specified statutory limit which may have been expressed as monetary amount or percentage or ratio or fraction;”

A perusal of clause (iv) to section 143(1)(a) of the Act would show that it provides for disallowance of expenditure indicated in the audit Assessment Years: 2018-19 & 2019-20 Hemendra Nath Deka report, but not taken into account in computing the total income in the return.

8. The impugned adjustment, in our opinion, would also fall u/s 143(1)(a)(ii) since it is an incorrect claim which is apparent from any information in the return. The adjustment made by CPC flows from reporting made by Tax Auditor in Tax Audit Report in Form 3CD. As per statutory mandate, the assessee is required by law to get its accounts audited u/s 44AB if its turnover crosses threshold turnover. The purpose of the audit is to enable the revenue to make correct computation of assessee's income. A proper audit would, inter-alia, ensure that the claims for deduction are correctly made. The report is required to be furnished by the assessee along with return of income to enable revenue to make correct computation of income. The reporting made therein could certainly be available to CPC to make the adjustment of defaults reported therein since the same would be apparent from information contained in the return. As noted earlier, the contribution is first treated as income of the assessee and thereafter, the deduction of the same has to be claimed by the assessee. Therefore, the columns in the Profit & Loss Account in the return of income has to be filled in this manner only i.e., the contribution is to be first added to the income of the assessee and thereafter, the deduction of the same &6/Gau/2022 Assessment Years: 2018-19 & 2019-20 Hemendra Nath Deka would be claimed by the assessee. In other words, the assessee would first add the same to its income and thereafter, it would claim deduction after crossing the hurdle of Sec.36(1)(va). Since the claim made by the assessee is inconsistent with the reporting made by Tax Auditor, it was an incorrect claim which CPC has rightly disallowed.