MILESTONE REAL ESTATE FUND THR TRUSTEE RUBU ARYA vs. THE ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER OF INCOME TAX CIRCLE25(3) AND 3 ORS
What did the High Court hold?
The High Court held that the provisional attachment order under Section 281B and the notices under Section 226(3) were invalid because they were issued before any assessment order or demand was raised. The court found that the AO's actions, including the corrigendum to the Section 226(3) notice, demonstrated a disregard for statutory provisions and the principle of natural justice. The rejection of the stay application under Section 220(6) was set aside, granting an unconditional stay of the demand for AY 2015-16 until the appeal before the CIT(A) was disposed of, plus two weeks. The court also set aside the adjustment of the refund for AY 2013-14 under Section 245, directing its refund to the petitioner, as the procedure under Section 245, requiring mandatory intimation and consideration of objections, was not followed. The court expressed dismay at the conduct of the revenue officers, stating their actions were unbecoming of the state and a planned attempt to make challenges impossible. The ratio is that recovery actions must strictly adhere to statutory provisions, and any deviation, especially concerning the timing of notices and the procedure for adjusting refunds, renders them invalid. The court directed the revenue to pay costs to the petitioner.
What were the facts?
The petitioner, Milestone Real Estate Fund, a SEBI-registered Venture Capital Fund, filed its return for AY 2015-16 declaring Rs. 10.85 Crores income after claiming exemptions under Section 10(23FB) and 10(35). The return was accepted under Section 143(1). Later, the Assessing Officer (AO) reopened the assessment under Section 148. During scrutiny, the AO passed an order for provisional attachment under Section 281B on December 18, 2018, attaching the petitioner's bank account to protect revenue interest. Subsequently, on December 19, 2018, the AO issued notices under Section 226(3) to the petitioner's bankers, stating a demand of Rs. 46.30 Crores was due. The petitioner contended that no demand was due on December 19, 2018, as the assessment order was passed on December 20, 2018. The AO issued a corrigendum on December 26, 2018, changing 'demand has fallen due' to 'demand is to be fallen due'. The assessment order dated December 20, 2018, rejected the petitioner's claims for exemption, resulting in a demand of Rs. 67.41 Crores. The petitioner's application for stay of demand under Section 220(6) was rejected by the AO and Pr. CIT. The AO also adjusted a refund of Rs. 21.41 Crores for AY 2013-14 against the demand for AY 2015-16.
What were the issues?
1. Whether the provisional attachment order under Section 281B dated December 18, 2018, and the notices issued under Section 226(3) on December 19, 2018, were valid when no assessment order or demand was raised at that time? 2. Whether the rejection of the petitioner's application for a complete stay of demand under Section 220(6) by the Assessing Officer and Principal Commissioner of Income Tax was justified? 3. Whether the adjustment of the refund of Rs. 21.41 Crores for AY 2013-14 against the demand for AY 2015-16 under Section 245 was legally permissible without proper intimation and consideration of objections? Assessee's Contentions: The petitioner argued that the attachment and notices under Section 226(3) were bad in law as no demand was due on the date of issuance. They also contended that the rejection of the stay application was arbitrary and that the adjustment of refund under Section 245 was contrary to law as no proper intimation was given. They relied on the principle that a refund due for one year cannot be adjusted against a disputed demand for another year without following due procedure. Revenue's Contentions: The judgment does not explicitly record the revenue's specific contentions on each issue, but their actions indicate they believed the recovery actions were justified to protect the interest of the revenue.
Which sections of the Income-tax Act were involved?
Section 281B,Section 226(3),Section 220(6),Section 245,Section 10(23FB),Section 10(35),Section 143(1),Section 148,Section 143(3),Section 147
AI-generated summary — verify with the full judgment below
Cause title — parties, addresses and appearances
indicated in the order. (e) In exercising the powers of stay, the Authority should always bear in mind that as a quasi judicial authority it is vested with the public duty of protecting the interest of the Revenue while at the same time balancing the need to mitigate hardship to the assessee. Though the assessing officer has made an assessment, he must objectively decide the application for stay considering that S.R.JOSHI 14 of 22 Uploaded on - 21/08/2020 Downloaded on - 28/10/2026 03:34:54
WP-540-2018 an appeal lies against his order; the application for stay must be considered from all its facets and the order should be passed, balancing the interest of the assessee with the protection of the Revenue. The above guidelines are only illustrative and the authority concerned would have to have exercise his discretion in matters of stay on the facts of the case before him.” (emphasis supplied) 9 In the present case, we note that both the impugned order dated 29th January, 2019 passed by the respondent no.1 Assessing Officer and order dated 14th February, 2019 passed by the respondent no.2 – Pr. CIT have completely ignored the binding directions of this Court of the manner in which the stay applications are to be disposed of and the test to be applied while considering grant of a stay of demand under Section 220(6) of the Act pending disposal of appeal by CIT(A). In fact, none of the two orders set out even briefly the issue involved and the submissions of the parties in support of its application for stay and yet both the orders dispose of the stay application, adverse to the petitioner. On the above ground itself, the impugned order dated 29th January, 2019 of the Assessing Officer and 14th February, 2019 of the Pr. CIT are unsustainable. 10 Moreover, in the stay proceedings, it was the petitioner's contention that the issue of eligibility for claim under Section 10(23FB) of the Act stood concluded in its favour by orders of the CIT(A) for the Assessment Year 201415 and by the Tribunal for the Assessment Year 201314 and there are no material changes in facts and law which would warrant a different view for the Assessment Year 201516. This fact viz. the issue being concluded by the orders of the Appellate Authorities is also noticed by the Assessing Officer in his assessment order dated 20th December, 2018. In fact, the assessment order dated 20th December, S.R.JOSHI 15 of 22 Uploaded on - 21/08/2020 Downloaded on - 28/10/2026 03:34:54
WP-540-2018 2018 after accepting the above facts refused to follow the same on the ground that the orders of both the Appellate Authorities i.e. CIT(A) and Tribunal on this issue are subject matters of further appeal before a higher forum by the respondents. The justification for this action in defiance of orders of Appellate Authorities is to keep the claim of the Revenue alive for the reason that no appeal by the Revenue from the order of the Assessing Officer is available under the Act unlike the Central Excise Act, 1944 or in the Customs Act, 1962. However, even if one were to accept this position, the orders of higher forums, unless stayed are binding on the lower authorities in the herarchical system of jurisprudence adopted by us. Thus, it is not open to the lower authorities to seek to enforce decisions contrary to and in defiance of the orders of the higher forums in the absence of any change in the facts and/or in law. Thus, while dealing with an application for stay of demand pending the disposal of an appeal before the CIT(A), the demand relatable to the assessment order being contrary to the orders of appellate authorities ought to be stayed for the mere asking. Notwithstanding the above settled position in law, both the Assessing Officer in his order dated 29th January, 2019 and the Pr. CIT in his order dated 14th February, 2019 while rejecting the stay, choose not to deal/consider the submission on the above account made by the petitioner. However, Mr. Walve, learned Counsel appearing for the Revenue relies upon stand taken in the affidavitinreply filed by the Assessing Officer in the month of March, 2019 that the CIT(A) in the case of HDFC Property Fund has departed from the view taken by him in the petitioner's case on similar facts to hold that HDFC Property Fund is not entitled to the benefit of Section 10(23FB) of the Act. Thus, the issue is now open and not concluded in petitioner's favour. Therefore, the need S.R.JOSHI 16 of 22 Uploaded on - 21/08/2020 Downloaded on - 28/10/2026 03:34:54
WP-540-2018 to protect the Revenue. However, the above submissions ignores the fact that on 20th February, 2019 the Tribunal has reversed the decision of the CIT(A) in HDFC Property Fund while allowing the appeal of the party in line with the decisions in the case of the petitioner. In any event, one must not loose sight of the fact that it is the petitioner's own case which stands covered by the orders of the appellate authorities and the same must take precedence over other decisions as the facts and circumstances in the other cases may be different from that of the assessee. On the aforesaid grounds also the impugned orders dated 29th January, 2019 and 14th February, 2019 are unsustainable. 11 Normally, on setting aside the orders under Section 220(6) of the Act, we restore the application to the Authorities for fresh consideration in accordance with law. However, looking at the conduct of the Assessing Officer and Pr. CIT in this particular case, restoring the stay application to them for fresh disposal would not serve any purpose. This for the reason that the conduct of the respondent nos. 1 and 2 in this case has been high handed and manifestly unfair towards the petitioner being in defiance of settled law. We have come to this view not only for the manner in which the stay application is disposed of by the respondent nos. 1 and 2 but from the manner in which the notices for attachment, notice / demands for recoveries made, refunds adjusted beginning with order under Section 281B of the Act and ending with notice dated 15th February, 2019 adjusting the refund with the pending demands. 12 The order under Section 281B of the Act was issued just two days before the assessment order was passed and neither does the order mention any basis for apprehension of the Revenue nor does the affidavit S.R.JOSHI 17 of 22 Uploaded on - 21/08/2020 Downloaded on - 28/10/2026 03:34:54
WP-540-2018 state any reasons in support of the action nor any submission made in support of its order dated 18th December, 2018 under Section 281B of the Act. Moreover, the notices under Section 226(3) of the Act were issued on 19th December, 2018 to the petitioner's bankers. This without any amount being due from the petitioner to the Revenue on that date and calling upon the petitioner's bankers to pay over the amounts of the petitioner lying with them to the Income Tax Department. As if this was not enough, the stay application was disposed of by the Assessing Officer on 29th January, 2019 and he withdrew an amount of Rs. 29.25 crores from the petitioner's bank account on 1st February, 2019 even before the hard copy of the order was served upon the petitioner. The stand of the Revenue for having withdrawn the amounts is that the order was communicated on e mail to the petitioner. However, there is no response when confronted by the order of this Court in UTI Mutual Fund (supra) where the Officers of the Revenue have been directed that where the bank accounts have been attached, the recovery / withdrawal of the amounts from the such bank account should be done only after giving a reasonable notice to the party of the proposed withdrawal of the amounts from the attached bank accounts. Following the above course would cause no prejudice to the Revenue as the amounts continue to be attached and the assessee will not be able to withdraw the same. However, at the same time it gives an opportunity to the party to seek redressal, if any, available in law. In this case, the petitioner could have moved the respondent no.2 Pr. CIT or the CIT for appropriate relief. Thereafter, during the hearing on 13th February, 2019 before the Pr. CIT, the petitioner is informed that the Assessing Officer has already issued a letter dated 12th February, 2019 to the petitioner intimating adjustment of the refund available for the S.R.JOSHI 18 of 22 Uploaded on - 21/08/2020 Downloaded on - 28/10/2026 03:34:54
WP-540-2018 Assessment Year 201213, 201314 and 201415 against the demands payable by the petitioner for the two Assessment Year 201516 and 2016
In fact, from the record as shown to us, it appears that letter / intimation given by the Assessing Officer is dated 11th February, 2019 and was received by the petitioner only on 13th February, 2019 at 6.00 p.m. i.e. after the hearing was concluded before the Pr. CIT. This conduct is not expected of the Officers of the State. It is unbecoming of the State. It appears the manner in which the Assessing Officer is communicating with the assessee, it is planned attempt to make it impossible for the petitioner to challenge the communication as by the time the petitioner comes to know of the proposed action on receipt of the communication, the action has already taken place making it a fait accompli. In any case, this adjustment of refund due for the other years with the demand for the subject Assessment Year under Section 245 of the Act by notice dated 15th February, 2019 is contrary to the law laid down by this Court in Hindustan Unilever Ltd. (supra). In the above case, this Court has held that in terms of Section 245 of the Act, which empowers the Revenue to set off or adjust the amounts to be refunded against any amounts remaining payable by the person concerned under the Act is a discretionary remedy. However, before the adjustment is done, intimation would under Section 245 of the Act to the party is mandatory. This intimation enable a party to point out any factual errors or any other development which would warrant nonadjustment of the refund against the demand payable for the consideration of the Assessing Officer. The Assessing Officer while exercising his powers under Section 245 of the Act must apply his mind to the objections raised by the assessee and record his reasons why the objection is not sustainable or otherwise and S.R.JOSHI 19 of 22 Uploaded on - 21/08/2020 Downloaded on - 28/10/2026 03:34:54
WP-540-2018 communicate itto the party before making the adjustment. This aforesaid procedure has been completely ignored by the Assessing Officer and also by the Pr. CIT. It is in the above view, we are also not directing a deposit/ payment of Rs.8.29 Crores (claimed in the alternative as exemption under Section 10(35) of the Act). Moreover, Section 10(23FB) of the Act exempts any income earned by a Venture Capital Fund and whether the dividend Income would be a part thereof is an issue not dealt with by the impugned orders dated 29th January,2019 and 14th February, 2019 of the Assessing Officer and Pr. CIT respectively. 13 Therefore, in the above circumstances we pass the following order : ORDER (a) We set aside the order dated 29th January, 2019 of the Assessing Officer and order dated 14th February, 2019 of the Principal Commissioner of Income Tax. As the issue stands concluded in favour of the petitioner by the orders of the appellate authorities as existing today in the petitioner's own case, we grant an unconditional stay of the demand for Assessment Year 201516 under Section 220(6) of the Act till the petitioner's appeal against the order dated 20th December, 2018 before the CIT(A) is disposed of and for a period of two weeks from the communication of the order to the petitioner; (b) We set aside the notice dated 19th December, 2018 issued under Section 226(3) of the Act by the Assessing Officer to the petitioner's bankers and direct the Revenue to deposit the amount of Rs.14.62 croers (in respect of Assessment year 201516) withdrawn from the S.R.JOSHI 20 of 22 Uploaded on - 21/08/2020 Downloaded on - 28/10/2026 03:34:54
WP-540-2018 petitioner's bank account along with appropriate interest at the bank lending rate from the date of the withdrawal to the date of redeposit into the Petitioner's bank account. We direct that the redeposit shall be done expeditiously and not later than 3 weeks from today along with interest; (c) We also set aside the notice dated 15th February, 2019 by which the refund of Rs.21.41 Crores available to the Petitioner for the Assessment Year 201314 is adjusted against the outstanding demand of Rs.52.78 Crores for subject assessment year and direct the refund of Rs.21.41 Crores to the Petitioner in accordance with law; and (d) We set aside the order dated 18th December, 2018 passed under Section 281B of the Act. This as the Revenue has not been able to justify the basis of their apprehension that if the Petitioner's assets are not attached, the interest of the Revenue in recovering its dues would be prejudiced. 14 Before parting, we have to express our dismay at the conduct of the Officers of the Revenue in this matter. We pride ourselves as a State which believes in rule of law. Therefore, the least that is expected of the Officers of the State is to apply the law equally to all and not be over zealous in seeking to collect the revenue ignoring the statutory provisions as well as the binding decisions of this Court. The action of Respondent nos.1 and 2 as adverted to in para 14 herein above clearly indicates that a separate set of rules was being applied by them in the case of the Petitioner. Equal protection of law which means equal application of law has been scarified in this case by the Revenue. It appears that the Petitioner is being singled out for this unfair treatment. The desire to S.R.JOSHI 21 of 22 Uploaded on - 21/08/2020 Downloaded on - 28/10/2026 03:34:54
WP-540-2018 collect more revenue cannot be at the expense of Rule of law. In the above view, we direct the RespondentRevenue to pay cost of Rs.50,000/ (Rupees Fifty thousand only) to the Petitioner for the unnecessary harassment, it had to undergo at the hands of the Revenue. This amount is to be paid by the Respondent Revenue to the Petitioner within four weeks from today. 15 The Petition is allowed in the above terms. (M.S.SANKLECHA,J.) (AKIL KURESHI,J.) S.R.JOSHI 22 of 22 Uploaded on - 21/08/2020 Downloaded on - 28/10/2026 03:34:54 Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)
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